A company's market share is very sensitive to both its level of advertising and the levels of its competitors' advertising. A firm known to have a 56% market share wants to test whether this value is still valid in view of recent advertising campaigns of its competitors and its own increased level of advertising. A random sample of 500 consumers reveals that 298 use the company's product. Is there evidence to conclude that the company's market share is no longer 56%, at the 0.01 level of significance?
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