As Table 17-2 shows, members of the poorest fifth of U.S. households have a much smaller share

Question:

As Table 17-2 shows, members of the poorest fifth of U.S. households have a much smaller share of total U.S. income than is typical in other developed countries. Does this mean that the poorest fifth of U.S. households are worse off in the United States than are the poorest fifth of households elsewhere? Why or why not?