Assume that we want to find the probability of getting at least one win when playing the Texas Pick 3 lottery 50 times. For one bet, there is a 1>1000 probability of winning. If we want to use the Poisson distribution as an approximation to the binomial, are the requirements satisfied? Why or why not?
Answer to relevant QuestionsAssume that we plan to play the Texas Pick 3 lottery 100 times. For one bet, there is a 1>1000 probability of winning. If we want to use the Poisson distribution as an approximation to the binomial, are the requirements ...In Exercise 1 we noted that in analyzing hits by V-1 buzz bombs in World War II, South London was partitioned into 576 regions, each with an area of 0.25 km2. A total of 535 bombs hit the combined area of 576 regions. a. ...Does the table describe a probability distribution? Why or why not? In the last U.S. Open tennis tournament, there were 611 challenges made by singles players, and 172 of them resulted in referee calls that were overturned. The accompanying table lists the results by gender. a. If one of the ...Between and -2.75 and -2.00 Assume that a randomly selected subject is given a bone density test. Those test scores are normally distributed with a mean of 0 and a standard deviation of 1. In each case, draw a graph and find ...
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