Question: Explain Kant s use of the first form of the categorical
Explain Kant’s use of the first form of the categorical imperative to argue that it is wrong to make a false promise. (Make sure that you do not appeal to the bad consequences as the basis of judging it wrong.)
Answer to relevant QuestionsAccording to the second form of Kant’s categorical imperative, would it be morally permissible for me to agree to be someone’s slave? Explain.1. What is meant by a “good will,” and why is it the only thing good “without qualification?”2. Out of what motives other than duty do people act?3. If we do the right thing, such as not overcharging customers or ...1. What is the chief characteristic of first principles, both of demonstration and of practical reason?2. What is the difference between something being self-evident in itself and self-evident to us?3. What is the first ...What are the basic features of the ethics of care?List the consequentialist concerns that could be given in arguing about whether the actions proposed in three of the scenarios in Question 6 are justified.
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