If a function f(x) is defined for all real x and has an inverse f-1(x), does it

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If a function f(x) is defined for all real x and has an inverse f-1(x), does it necessarily follow that also g(x) = [f(x)2] has an inverse g-1(x)?
Explain why it does, or given an example when it does not.

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Discrete Mathematics and Its Applications

ISBN: 978-0073383095

7th edition

Authors: Kenneth H. Rosen

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Question Posted: Aug 26, 2013 07:05 AM

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If a function f(x) is defined for all real x and has an inverse f-1(x), does it

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Fx is defined for all real x and has an inverse f 1 x gx fx 2 So Takin...View the full answer

Discrete Mathematics and Its Applications

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