Meiotic nondisjunction is much more likely than mitotic non-disjunction. Based on this observation, would you conclude that

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Meiotic nondisjunction is much more likely than mitotic non-disjunction. Based on this observation, would you conclude that meiotic nondisjunction is usually due to nondisjunction during meiosis I or meiosis II? Explain your reasoning.

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Genetics Analysis And Principles

ISBN: 9780073525341

5th Edition

Authors: Robert Brooker

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Question Posted: May 17, 2016 05:11 AM

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Meiotic nondisjunction is much more likely than mitotic non-disjunction. Based on this observation, would you conclude that

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To conclude I can say that it usually occurs during ...View the full answer

Genetics Analysis And Principles

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