Let (y) = 2 tan 1 (e y ) /2. Prove that gd(y) = (y). Show
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Let ƒ(y) = 2 tan−1(ey) − π/2. Prove that gd(y) = ƒ(y). Show that gd(y) = ƒ'(y) and ƒ (0) = gd(0).
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Let fy 2tan e Then 2e 1 ey fv To find C we substitute y 0 Therefore ...View the full answer
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