Suppose that F (x) = (x) and G(x) = g(x). Is it true that y = F(x)G(x)
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Suppose that F (x) = ƒ(x) and G(x) = g(x). Is it true that y = F(x)G(x) is an antiderivative of y = ƒ(x)g(x)? Confirm or provide a counterexample.
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Let fx x and gx x Then Fx x and gx xare antiderivativ...View the full answer
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