Does genotyping a population provide more accurate estimates of p than obtained by only having the clinical
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Does genotyping a population provide more accurate estimates of p than obtained by only having the clinical phenotype? Why or why not?
As an experiment, 10,000 people are completely genotyped, of whom 10 have the (aa) genotype, 630 have the (aA) genotype [i.e., either (aA) or (Aa)], and 9360 have the (AA) genotype.
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