In a column in the New York Times, Uwe Reinhardt, an economist at Princeton, compared health care spending in Germany and the United States: “Total national health spending in Germany. . . amounted to $4,200 per capita in purchasing power parity, slightly more than half of American spending of $7,900.” Did Reinhardt use the current exchange rate between the euro and the dollar to convert Germany’s health care spending to euros? If not, why might doing so have been misleading?