Let f(x) = tan x. Show that f (0) = f () but there is no number

Question:

Let f(x) = tan x. Show that f (0) = f (π) but there is no number c in (0, π) such that f' (c) = 0. Why does this not contradict Rolle’s Theorem?

Fantastic news! We've Found the answer you've been seeking!

Step by Step Answer:

Related Book For  book-img-for-question
Question Posted: