Let (left(B_{t}, mathscr{F}_{t}ight)_{t geqslant 0}) be a one-dimensional Brownian motion and (f in mathcal{C}^{1}(mathbb{R})). Show that (M_{t}:=f(t)

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Let \(\left(B_{t}, \mathscr{F}_{t}ight)_{t \geqslant 0}\) be a one-dimensional Brownian motion and \(f \in \mathcal{C}^{1}(\mathbb{R})\). Show that \(M_{t}:=f(t) B_{t}-\int_{0}^{t} f^{\prime}(s) B_{s} d s\) is a martingale.

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