The decomposition of the free wave at infinity, (46.15), seems counterintuitive since the lefthand side is certainly nonzero (in fact, naively, it is of order 1!) if \(\vec{k}\) is other than parallel or antiparallel to \(\vec{r}\). In what sense should we understand this relation, then?

Data From Equation 46.15:-

Transcribed Image Text:

eik.r eikr -(nk + nr). ik (46.15) 2 2 ik -(k - nr)- e-ikr r - 2