Let f : X Y and be as in the previous problem. For y
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Question:
Let f : X → Y and ∼ be as in the previous problem. For y ∈ f(X), define F(y) = f -1 ({y}) (where f -1 (A) = {x ∈X : f(y) ∈ A}). Show that F is a bijection between f(X) and the set of equivalence classes in X under the relation ∼.
*Previous problem states "For a, b ∈ X, declare a ∼ b if f(a) = f(b)."
Related Book For
Data Analysis and Decision Making
ISBN: 978-0538476126
4th edition
Authors: Christian Albright, Wayne Winston, Christopher Zappe
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