Let (X sim operatorname{Bin}(n, p)), and let (Y=n-X). Show that (Y sim operatorname{Bin}(n, 1-p)).
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Let \(X \sim \operatorname{Bin}(n, p)\), and let \(Y=n-X\). Show that \(Y \sim \operatorname{Bin}(n, 1-p)\).
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