Suppose that fN: [-Ï, Ï] R are integrable and that fN f uniformly on [-Ï, Ï] as
Question:
a) Prove that ak(fN) ak(f) and bk(fN) †’ bk(f), as N †’ ˆž, uniformly in k.
b) Show that part a) holds under the weaker hypothesis
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a Since f N x fx 0 uniformly on it ...View the full answer
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