Question: The P value of 0 17 in part a of the previous
The P-value of 0.17 in part a of the previous exercise suggests that LP_200 plausibly had no effect on BP, once BP_60 is in the model. Yet when LP_200 is the sole predictor of BP, the correlation is 0.58 and the significance test for its effect has a P-value of 0.000, suggesting very strong evidence of an effect. Explain why this is not a contradiction.
Answer to relevant QuestionsRefer to the previous two exercises. The sample standard deviation of BP was 13.3. The residual standard deviation of BP when BP_60 and LP_200 are predictors in a multiple regression model is 7.9. a. Explain the difference ...The MINITAB results are shown for predicting selling price using x1 = size of home, x2 = number of bedrooms, and x3 = age. Regression of selling price on house size, number of bedrooms, and age a. State the null hypothesis ...Use software with the House Selling Prices OR data file on the text CD to do residual analyses with the multiple regression model for y = house selling price (in thousands), x1 = lot size, and x2 = number of bathrooms. a. ...Use the House Selling Prices OR data file on the text CD to regress selling price in thousands on house size and whether the house has a garage. a. Report the prediction equation. Find and interpret the equations predicting ...A logistic regression model describes how the probability of voting for the Republican candidate in a presidential election depends on x , the voter’s total family income (in thousands of dollars) in the previous year. The ...
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