If the world price of a good is less than the domestic price prior to trade, why
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If the world price of a good is less than the domestic price prior to trade, why does it imply that the domestic economy has a comparative disadvantage in producing that good?
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Manjula Jatothu
I am a B.Tech graduate, at present i am working as a test engineer, My educational qualifications BTech in electronics and communication engineering.
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