Why does Aristotle make a distinction between instrumental and intrinsic goods, and how does this distinction allow him to arrive at the notion of the highest good? What is eudaimonia, and how is this notion different from ‘pleasure’? How does Aristotle define the term and why does he consider it to be the highest good? Second, why and how does Aristotle define virtue as excellence? Third, how Aristotle distinguish between moral and intellectual virtue? According to Aristotle, what is the role of habituation or habit formation in cultivation of a morally virtuous person? Using examples, discuss why and how the rational thought and actions of a morally virtuous person are guided by the ‘doctrine of the mean.’ Finally, think of a figure who might fit the description of a ‘morally virtuous person,’ and explain why.

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Instrumental goods are good for some purpose and intrinsic goods are good for their own sake Aristotle makes a distinction between instrumental and in... View the full answer