) Why is the mass of the earth important to maintain life as we know it? A) If the earth's mass were significantly different, we would be bombarded by cosmic rays that would strip away our atmosphere. B) If the earth's mass were greater, we would be bombarded by meteorites and if it were smaller, we would not be able to hold the moon in orbit. C) If it had more or less mass, the atmosphere would be very different with either too much ammonia and methane or too little oxygen and water. D) If we had more or less mass, the earth would not have plate tectonics and would be covered entirely by water.

2) Why is it important that we have a rigid lithosphere overlying a weak asthenosphere? A) If we did not have the rigid lithosphere and weak asthenosphere, the atmosphere would be very different with either too much ammonia and methane or too little oxygen and water. B) If we did not have the rigid lithosphere and weak asthenosphere, the earth would not have plate tectonics and would be covered entirely by water. C) If we did not have the rigid lithosphere and weak asthenosphere, we would be bombarded by meteorites and we would not be able to hold the moon in orbit. D) If we did not have the rigid lithosphere and weak asthenosphere, we would be bombarded by cosmic rays that would strip away our atmosphere.

3) Why is the molten metallic outer core and the magnetic field important to life on Earth? A) If we did not have the molten core and the magnetic field, the atmosphere would be very different with either too much ammonia and methane or too little oxygen and water. B) If we did not have the molten core and the magnetic field, we would be bombarded by meteorites and we would not be able to hold the moon in orbit. C) If we did not have the molten core and the magnetic field, the earth would not have plate tectonics and would be covered entirely by water. D) If we did not have the molten core and the magnetic field, we would be bombarded by cosmic rays that would strip away our atmosphere.

4) What would have happened to the earth if it were 10% closer to the sun? A) Our atmosphere would consist mainly of carbon dioxide. B) Our sun would have burned out after a few hundred million years so life would not evolve. C) Liquid water and the water cycle would not exist. D) Our atmosphere would consist mainly of nitrogen.

5) What would have happened to the earth if the Sun were significantly larger than it is? A) Our atmosphere would consist mainly of nitrogen. B) Liquid water and the water cycle would not exist. C) Our Sun would have burned out after a few hundred million years so life would not evolve. D) Our atmosphere would consist mainly of carbon dioxide.

6) Early Earth was hot because ________. A) gravitational collapse generates heat B) there was still heat from the original big bang C) the moon's formation from an giant impact produced heat D) the Sun was much larger and heated the early planet E) a combination of collisions and radioactive decay produced heat ??????1

7) The major source of free oxygen in the atmosphere is from ________. A) glaciers B) water C) silicate minerals D) molten rock E) green plants

8) Earth's primitive atmosphere evolved from gases ________. A) collected from the nebula B) from the Sun C) produced by radioactive decay D) escaping from water E) expelled from within the earth

9) The large size of insects and amphibians during the Pennsylvanian period has been suggested to be due to ________. A) an excess of sunlight and water during that time B) the emergence of a super continent that allowed greater areas for animals to evolve C) a lack of predators for early land forms D) a decrease in methane in the atmosphere during that time E) an excess of oxygen during that time

10) The modern oceans are a major repository for the greenhouse gas ________, which some organisms utilize to make their shells. A) CO2 B) SiO2 C) Ammonia D) Limestone E) Iron oxide

11) Banded Iron Formations are interbedded iron oxides and chert that formed on the sea floor between 3.5 and 2 billion years ago because ________. A) chert was being deposited by bacteria and iron was a common ocean deposit B) outgassing produced both chert and iron oxide in roughly equal amounts and the oceans became saturated with them C) iron was using the oxygen produced by bacteria and chert was a common ocean deposit D) iron and chert were very abundant in the early earth E) photosynthesis had not yet started to generate oxygen so iron and chert were the deposited on the sea floor

12) One significant difference between oceanic and continental crust in terms of the long term evolution of the earth's surface is that ________. A) continental crust is harder to subduct than oceanic crust B) oceanic crust is less dense than continental crust C) continental crust is more uniform in composition than oceanic crust D) oceanic crust contains more radioactive elements that contribute to the heating of the earth. E) oceanic crust preserves a history of ancient deformation better than continental crust

13) The North America craton formed as a result of ________. A) the collision of two continents to form a supercontinent B) a huge volcanic eruption C) the break-up of a large supercontinent D) the metamorphism of oceanic crust E) collision of older crustal fragments composed of island arcs and other fragments ???????2

14) Antarctica became glaciated because ________. A) ocean circulation changed with the northward movement of South America B) a meteorite impact changed the earth's tilt axis C) ocean circulation changed with the southward movement of South America D) it moved to a position over the south pole E) global climate changed with the formation of the Himalayan Mountains

15) A major economic deposit associated with the Cretaceous period is ________. A) sand B) platinum C) uranium D) gold E) coal

16) During the early Paleozoic era, South America, Africa, Australia, Antarctica, India, and perhaps China comprised the vast southern continent of ________. A) Pangaea B) Antindia C) Europe D) Gondwanaland E) Laurasia

17) The North American Cordillera formed as a result of ________. A) the subduction of the Pacific basin beneath North America B) the subduction of the Atlantic basin beneath North America C) the evolution of the San Andreas Fault zone D) the growth of the Appalachian Mountains

18) A distinctive characteristic of prokaryotes is ________. A) their methane based metabolism B) their ability to produce sugars C) their oxygen based metabolism D) their lack of a separation between the DNA and the rest of the cell E) their thick cell walls that separate the DNA from the rest of the cell

19) A major obstacle the first land plants had to overcome was ________. A) finding food on land where there were no organic compounds B) eliminating waste materials in the atmosphere C) staying upright despite gravity and wind on land D) their lack of mobility because they needed water access E) the large number of plant eating organisms on land

20) An important evolutionary step for reptiles was ________. A) the growth of scales from armor plating B) the development of shell-covered eggs C) the formation of a true spine D) lungs that could hold air

21) What group of animals were the first to leave the ocean to become the first amphibians? ???????A) salamanders C) horn-beaked Cephalopods B) lobe-finned fish D) trilobites ?3

22) During the Cambrian, Trilobites developed a flexible exoskeleton which allowed them to ________. A) avoid being eaten by other creatures B) sink to the bottom of shallow ponds to find food C) climb trees and find food D) eat smaller life forms by crushing them in their jaws E) burrow in soft sediment to find food

23) Birds evolved from ________. A) archaeopteryx B) apatosaurus C) gymnosperms D) tree-climbing amphibians E) pterosaurs

24) Human ancestors developed the tendency to walk on two legs instead of four in order to accommodate ________. A) running across hot ash beds in Tanzania B) picking fruit C) hunting and gathering food in grasslands D) climbing trees in the forests E) riding elephants

25) The major adaptions that made it possible for mammals to evolve into their modern forms included all of the following except ________. A) they developed specialized teeth to adapt to a varied diet B) they became significantly larger C) their brains increased in capacity D) they developed specialized limbs to adapt to a varied life style E) they developed a more efficient respiratory system

26) The cyanobacteria were A) responsible for introducing substantial amounts of oxygen into Earth's atmosphere. B) a group of heterotrophic bacteria. C) chemoautotrophs. D) the earliest known prokaryotes.

27) Humans are A) chemoautotrophs. B) heterotrophs. C) autotrophs. D) archaeans.

28) Which of the following statements regarding the origin of life is false? A) Miller and Urey generated amino acids and many other organic molecules by shooting electric sparks through a model of Earth's early atmosphere. B) When certain lipids are added to water, they spontaneously form structures that resemble cell membranes. C) The first genes were probably made of DNA, not RNA. D) Life originated on an Earth whose atmosphere contained no oxygen.

29) The work of ________ finally convinced the scientific world that life did not arise through spontaneous ???????generation. A) Louis Pasteur C) Charles Darwin B) Jean Baptiste Lamarck D) Antony van Leeuwenhoek ?4

30) The endosymbiotic theory suggests that the following eukaryotic structures were derived from prokaryotes living inside early eukaryotes: A) the nucleus. B) the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts. C) the mitochondria and chloroplasts. D) all eukaryotic organelles, but not the nucleus.

31) Which scientist played an important role in the history of biology for promoting the idea that species changed over time (although he attributed this change over time to an incorrect mechanism)? A) Jean Baptiste Lamarck B) Charles Darwin C) Charles Lyell D) Thomas Malthus

32) Which scientist led Darwin to his great idea about the cause of evolutionary change by observing that human populations grow much faster than available food supplies and that famine was an inevitable feature of human ??existence? A) Thomas Malthus C) Charles Darwin

33) All the following traits are heritable in humans except A) hair color. B) eye color.

34) The number of arms humans have is A) variable but not heritable. C) heritable but not variable.

35) Natural selection may favor traits that help organisms A) successfully raise offspring. C) survive. B) Charles Lyell D) Jean Baptiste Lamarck C) hair length. D) shape of lips. ??B) neither heritable nor variable. D) both heritable and variable. B) acquire mates. D) all of the above ??

36) If the females of a songbird species prefer to mate with more brightly colored males, and you know this trait is heritable, you would expect A) brightly colored males to survive better in the population. B) sexual selection to occur. C) males to evolve to become more brightly colored. D) both A and B

37) A population of beetles in which some individuals are blue and some individuals are green evolves because the green individuals survive better, and so leave more offspring. This mechanism of evolution is known as A) natural selection. B) mutation pressure. C) genetic drift. D) gene flow.

38) When a donkey mates with a horse, a mule is produced. However, mules are sterile. This is an example of A) speciation by hybridization. B) allopatric speciation. C) a postzygotic reproductive barrier. D) sympatric speciation.

39) The formation of the isthmus of Panama, dividing the Pacific Ocean from the Caribbean Sea, resulted in many ???instances of A) gene flow. C) sympatric speciation. B) polyploidy. D) allopatric speciation. ?5

40) The evolution of a large number of species, each adapted to a distinct way of life, from a single ancestor describes A) sympatric speciation. C) allopatric speciation.

41) An example of artificial selection is the A) evolution of antibiotic-resistant bacteria. B) adaptive radiation. D) polyploidy. ?B) breeding of corn from teosinte. C) fact that all mammalian limbs are made up of the same set of bones. D) observation that some snakes retain tiny, incomplete hind legs.

42) Which statement regarding human evolution and our hominid relatives is false? A) Homo erectus was the first species to migrate out of Africa and into Europe and Asia. B) Modern human anatomy appeared at the same time as modern human cultural traits. C) In some hominids, males were significantly larger than females in body size. D) Neanderthals interbred with modern humans, but disappeared as modern humans spread.

43) The current global human population is approximately ________. A) 1.5 billion B) 10 billion C) 1.5 million D) 7 billion E) 7 million

44) Diminishing population growth rates in poor countries can be partially attributed to ________. A) the education of women B) economic disasters C) reproducing beyond replacement fertility D) illness in infants E) valuing the birth of a son

45) ________ is the world's most populous nation, home to ________ of the people living on Earth. A) The United States; half B) India; one-third C) China; half D) The United States; one-fifth E) China; one-fifth

46) Life expectancy in parts of southern Africa ________. A) has fallen dramatically since 1990 B) is on the rise C) has stabilized due to population control D) cannot be determined due to lack of adequate methods for data collection E) is starting to fall

47) The richest one-fifth of the world's population possesses approximately ________ times the income of the poorest one-fifth, and the richest one-fifth uses over 86% of the world's resources. A) 10 B) 40 C) 80 D) 20 E) 60 ???????6

48) A high birth rate coupled with a declining death rate resulting from increased food production and improved medical care is characteristic of the ________ stage of the demographic transition model. A) transitional B) stabilization C) revolutionary D) postindustrial E) preindustrial

49) IPAT stands for ________. A) Impact, Population, Affluence, and Technology B) Industry, Population, Attitude, and Teaching C) Impact, People, Affluence, and Technology D) Industry, People, Attitude, and Teaching E) Impact, Population, Attitude, and Technology

50) The term demographic transition refers to ________. A) a requirement for a population to reach a specific size before it becomes stable B) the slowing down in the growth of a population as it approaches it biocapacity C) the decline in death rates followed by decline in birth rates, occurring as a country economically develops D) the decline in death rates followed by a decline in birth rates that occurred because sanitation levels in areas improved E) the slowing down in the growth of a population as it approaches the carrying capacity

51) If global fertility rates remain at 2005-2010 levels, the United Nations predicts that world population will be approximately ________ billion in 2050. A) 4 B) 11 C) 7 D) 10 E) 5

52) The annual global growth rate of the human population peaked in the ________ and has been declining ever since. A) 1950s B) early 1900s C) 1990s D) year 2000 E) 1960s

53) Which statement most accurately describes the population control efforts in China? A) A one-child policy that is enforced through taxation and penalties has successfully controlled population growth. B) Increasing child survival, elevated status and employment levels for women, and increased literacy in the general population has decreased fertility rates. C) There is minimal governmental financial support for birth control for all couples. D) A one-child policy that requires all women to work and education for all has decreased fertility rates. E) Changing public attitudes about family size through communication, education, counseling, and contraceptives has reduced the population growth rates.

54) Zero population growth can be achieved in a population when ________. A) total fertility rate exceeds the average replacement rate B) carrying capacity is larger than ecological footprint C) the approach is having as many children in the first five years of marriage D) birth rate equals death rate, and there is no migration E) ecological footprints are larger than carrying capacity ???????7

55) The most serious problem caused by population growth is ________. A) crowding B) too few jobs C) increasing demand for resources D) lack of farmland to meet food needs E) inefficient food transportation

56) Which of the following best describes the human population from early times to the present? A) rapid, explosive growth throughout the period B) early rapid growth which has leveled off to a nearly constant rate in the last 20 years C) slow, steady growth throughout the period D) slow, uneven growth until the 1800s, then increasingly rapid growth E) early rapid growth which has increased rapidly in the last 20 years

57) According to the IPAT model, technology that enhances our acquisition of minerals, fossil fuels, timber, and ocean fish ________. A) decreases sensitivity B) decreases environmental impact C) increases environmental impact D) increases population E) increases sensitivity

58) The Cornucopian view held by many economists suggests that resource depletion due to greater numbers of people ________. A) will cause a population crash B) will lead to natural selection of the most fit individuals C) is not a problem if new resources can be found to replace depleted ones D) is not a problem because disease will limit population size E) is not a problem because humans are too intelligent to allow it to be

59) In the demographic transition model, the highest population growth rate in a country is likely to occur during ________. A) stage 1, the preindustrial stage B) stage 2, the transitional stage C) stage 3, the industrial stage D) stage 4, the postindustrial stage E) stage 5, the stability transition stage

60) Not surprisingly, the nation with the highest rate of contraceptive use (84%) is ________. A) New Zealand B) United States C) Australia D) South Africa E) China

61) Most of the world population growth in the near future will be in ________. A) Europe B) North America C) developing countries D) currently uninhabited areas such as Antarctica E) developed countries ???????8

62) Recent research suggests that ________ has/have contributed to the large drop in fertility rates in Brazil over the past several decades. A) AIDS and malaria B) legalization of abortions C) exposure to environmental estrogens D) soap operas E) laws preventing women from having more than one child

63) The world's most abundant fossil fuel is ________. A) coal B) oil C) natural gas D) biodiesel E) methane

64) Instead of only generating more electricity, rising energy demands may also be met by ________. A) increasing the efficiency of energy consumption B) switching from natural gas to coal C) switching from coal and natural gas to windmills and solar technologies D) using more nuclear power instead of fossil fuels E) building more coal-burning power plants

65) Crude oil is ________. A) formed in a wide range of temperature and pressure circumstances B) formed less than 100 yards below the surface; in deeper places with more pressure, coal is formed C) usable in its raw form D) composed of three different hydrocarbon molecules E) refined to separate the chemicals used for gasoline, lubricants, plastics, and other products

66) Secondary extraction of petroleum ________. A) is less expensive than primary extraction B) occurs immediately after primary extraction C) allows the oil to be extracted to the last drop D) causes less environmental damage than tertiary extraction E) uses solvents, water, or steam

67) Natural gas ________. A) produces less carbon dioxide per energy unit than coal or oil B) primary component is octane C) is transported primarily by truck and rail D) discovered by M. King Hubbert in 1885 E) will be depleted by 2030 at current usage rates

68) The Keystone XL pipeline ________. A) is a hotly debated pipeline that would carry petroleum from Canada to the southern United States B) carries petroleum from northern Alaska to the Gulf of Alaska C) would allow Canada to import more oil from Brazil D) carries natural gas from gas fields near Keystone, South Dakota, to the eastern United States E) is a hotly debated oil pipeline that would pass through Montana, Idaho, Utah, Nevada, and Arizona ???????9 ?Use the accompanying figure to answer the following questions.

69) According to the figure, ________ is/are the largest source of energy for the United States. A) oil B) natural gas C) renewables D) nuclear energy E) coal

70) According to the figure, the primary energy source used to generate the most electricity in the United States is ________ . A) coal B) renewable energy C) oil D) nuclear energy E) natural gas ??10

71) One of the problems with finding new fossil fuel deposits in developing countries is that ________. A) those countries tend to keep the resource for themselves, not sharing with other countries B) multinational companies often move in to harvest the new deposit, and very little money or resource remains in the country C) it is very expensive to transport the deposit elsewhere D) their governments seldom allow extraction of the deposit without imposing huge taxes to fund new social benefits for the country E) their governments seldom allow extraction of the deposit without meeting expensive environmental regulations

72) The oil spill resulting from the 2010 Deepwater Horizon disaster ________. A) is the largest accidental oil spill in world history, causing damage to marine and coastal ecosystems B) eclipsed all non-point oil spills by 500% C) resulted in a permanent ban on all offshore drilling in U.S. coastal waters D) is considered a minor incident compared to other oil spills E) was quickly cleaned up preventing loss of wildlife and damage to fisheries

73) Energy conservation in the United States ________. A) can be accomplished only through changes in environmental laws B) can be accomplished by changes in tax laws C) is unlikely to ever occur D) will be a reality only if there is another major war E) can be improved as individuals make conscious choices to reduce personal consumption

74) The energy bill passed by the U.S. Congress in 2007 ________. A) primarily focused on taxing polluters and those who profit from the fossil fuel industry B) will, according to analysts, allow us to import only 25% of our oil instead of 60% C) mandates the rapid development of all remaining fossil fuel resources as quickly as possible D) primarily focused on major new policies for conservation and for development of renewable energy sources E) raised the CAFE standard to 35 mpg for vehicles by the year 2020

75) Many developed nations have their economies closely tied to imported fossil fuels. One important consideration for those nations is that ________. A) as supplies decrease, fossil fuels decline in price B) if energy conservation is put into place, the cost of fossil fuels will increase C) their economy will only improve if the price of fossil fuels increases D) if energy conservation is put into place, the cost of fossil fuels will decrease E) their economy can be disrupted by the events and decisions made in fuel exporting nations

76) Renewable energy includes all of the following except ________. A) the sun B) rain C) natural gas D) the wind E) geothermal heat ??????11

77) U.S. oil production ________. A) has to fit the quotas imposed by OPEC B) is now high enough for us to export nearly 50% of our oil C) peaked in 1970 D) will peak in 2100, requiring for the first time imports to meet growing demand E) is sufficient to meet national needs, thanks to major conservation efforts

78) Carbon sequestration ________. A) involves capturing carbon emissions and then releasing them into the stratosphere B) has proved to be more dangerous to the environment than releasing carbon emissions C) has been used by U.S. electrical plants since 1955, converting carbon dioxide to limestone D) converts carbon from carbon dioxide emissions into smaller elements that do not contribute to global climate change E) involves converting carbon dioxide gas to a liquid form for storage in the ocean or underground

79) When assessing energy resources, it is helpful to use a measure called EROI, which is ________. A) amount of energy invested minus heat released into the environment B) energy returned divided by energy invested C) energy returned minus energy invested D) money invested in extraction and processing minus income from sales E) energy returned plus energy invested

80) Natural gas is primarily composed of ________. A) sulfur dioxide B) nitrogen C) oxygen D) methane E) nitrite

81) Which of the following is a benefit of using nuclear power? A) Core meltdown of reactors can provide "bonus" energy for electricity production. B) The increasing costs of nonrenewable energy sources make nuclear energy more economically viable. C) Using nuclear power causes more use of fossil fuels. D) Few greenhouse gases are emitted. E) Mining activities enhance ecosystems.

82) Biofuels and nuclear power may prove useful as ________. A) replacement fuels for motor vehicles B) pollution-free sustainable energies C) stages in the development of fusion generators D) inexpensive technologies for developing nations E) energies to bridge the time between fossil fuel depletion and new renewables ??????12 ?Compare the data in these two figures to answer the following question.

83) One conclusion that can be drawn from the figures is that ________. A) only a small amount of the available hydropower energy is used for electricity generation B) of the total renewable energy available, geothermal energy is primarily used for purposes other than electricity generation C) most of the available biomass energy is used for electricity generation D) most of the wind energy is used for electricity generation E) solar energy is currently a major source for generation of electricity

84) Currently, the fastest-growing source of electricity generation using new renewable sources is ________. A) natural gas B) hydro C) PV solar D) coal E) wind ??13

85) Photovoltaic (PV) technology is best described as ________. A) using sunlight to generate electricity B) trapping sun's heat and storing it for various uses C) using mirrors to concentrate sunlight, in order to heat water and produce steam for electricity generation D) using sun's energy to warm a room without mechanical devices E) passive solar technology

86) The primary motivation to develop the new renewable energy sources comes from ________. A) those who believe human health is impacted by smog and pollution B) concerns over diminishing fossil fuel supplies and negative environmental impacts of fossil fuel use C) those who believe conservation is important D) those who believe fossil fuel dependence is suicide because it makes us vulnerable to the Middle East E) concerns that oxygen production by trees is endangered by fossil fuel use

87) Solar represents a minuscule portion of U.S. energy production because of ________. A) technological limitations B) air and water pollution from this source of energy C) lack of investment D) lack of scientific interest E) poor potential for this energy source

88) A major advantage of solar power is that ________. A) pollution is high B) cost is prohibitive even in developed countries C) solar systems provide local, decentralized control over power D) there is a lack of knowledge on long-term impacts E) not all regions are sunny enough to provide adequate power with current technology

89) A major disadvantage of solar power is ________. A) the uneven distribution of sunshine around the world B) its cost-effectiveness compared to other types of power C) that solar systems decentralize control over electrical energy D) its efficiency level compared to other types of power E) that there is a lack of knowledge on long-term economic impacts

90) A major obstacle to the establishment of wind farms near populated and scenic areas is ________. A) the lack of government support for the construction of wind farms B) the lack of infrastructure to support wind-generated electricity C) not-in-my-backyard (NIMBY) syndrome D) the lack of financial support for the construction of wind farms E) the lack of large land areas needed to construct wind farms

91) One benefit of offshore wind farms is that ________. A) they are more aesthetically pleasing than wind farms on land B) development of land for human use is pushing wind farms to open water C) maintenance costs are less than they are on land D) wind speeds are higher and turbulence is lower over water than over land E) unlike land-based wind farms, they do not interfere with bird migration routes ???????14

92) The current practice of geothermal power generation may not always provide a practical renewable energy source because ________. A) in some cases, the heated groundwater is used much faster than it is recharged B) in some instances, pollution emissions can be very high C) geologically heated groundwater is unsuitable for these plants and must be purified first D) in many cases, the magma is used faster than it is recharged E) power plants have high maintenance costs

93) The largest problem with adopting the new technology of renewable resources is ________. A) that technological advances have not been made in the last 30 years to meet our energy needs B) that long-term maintenance costs are much higher than those for fossil fuels C) in evaluating the scientific and economic impacts D) that the startup costs may be high E) that energy production facilities are not located near consumers

94) Although photovoltaic electricity as a power source is cleaner than burning fossil fuels, the problem with this electricity is that it ________. A) cannot be stored easily in large quantities for use when and where it is needed B) is less efficient than fossil fuels C) will be replaced shortly with other sources of power for homes D) is not sufficiently understood E) is dangerous if stored too long

95) Which one of the following is true of hydrogen fuel cell technology? A) It was originally slated for use in cars by Ford. B) Many homes were built in desert regions using the technology to collect and heat water. C) The U.S. government wanted it for use in military operations. D) It has been used widely in NASA's spaceflight programs. E) The visionaries of the fossil fuel companies saw the need to develop this technology.

96) Whether a hydrogen-based energy system is environmentally cleaner than a fossil fuel system depends on ________. A) the amount of fossil fuels that are invested in long-term storage B) the source of energy used to produce the hydrogen C) the source of oxygen used for the process D) governmental incentives for research E) the car driven

97) The chemical product of burning hydrogen or using hydrogen fuel cells as an energy source is ________. A) water B) nontoxic ash C) carbon monoxide D) acids E) glucose and oxygen ??????15

98) Every winter morning when the sun is shining bright, a man living in Idaho pulls back the drapes on a large, south-facing window. In this way, he helps heat his home using ________. A) active solar heating B) radioactive solar heating C) photovoltaic heating D) conductive solar heating E) passive solar heating

99) U.S. geothermal energy is most available in ________. A) the West B) the Southeast C) the Northeast D) the Florida Keys E) Texas

100) Wind will not be a major U.S. energy resource in ________. A) the Northeast B) the Southeast C) Texas D) the Northwest E) California

4. The effectiveness of solar-energy heating units depends on the amount of radiation available from the sun. During a typical October, daily total solar radiation in Tampa, Florida, approximately follows the following probability density function (units are hundreds of calories). 3 - (x-2)(6-x), 25x56 f (x) =32 0 , otherwise a. Show that the above function represents a correct density function. Note: Show that the two conditions of f (x) 2 0for all x values and | f(x)dx = 1 a. Find the probability that solar radiation will exceed 400 calories on a typical October day. b. What amount of solar radiation is exceeded on exactly 50% of the October days, according to this model? 5. A random variable X has the following probability function. f ( x ) = ; for 1 s x 52 otherwise where a is a constant. a. Calculate the value of a. b. Sketch the shape of the above distribution. c. Find P(X > 0.5) d. Find the Cumulative distribution function of X. e. Do the same calculation of part (c) using the cdf of X.Exercise 1 An insurance policy pays $100 per day for up to 3 days of hospitalization and $50 per day for each day of hospitalization thereafter. The number of days of hospitalization. X, is a discrete random variable with probability mass function E _ , P[X = k] :{ 15 for its1.2.3.4..) 0 otherwise (a) Determine the expected number of days of hospitalization. Also find the standard deviation. (b) Five days are randomly chosen from October. What is the probability that at least 3 days have solar radiation that exceeds 300 calories? 3.4 = Displaying Blvariate Numerical Data Frequency Class Interval 1 111 IV V 010