Two parents both have brown eyes, but they have two children with brown eyes and two with blue eyes. How is it possible that two people with the same eye color can have children with different eye color? If eye color in this family is determined by differences in genotype for a single gene with two alleles, what percentage of the children are expected to have blue eyes? If the ratio of brown to blue eyes in this family does not conform to expectations, why does this result not refute Mendelian genetics?