Use the First Mean Value Theorem for Integrals to prove the following version of the Mean Value

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Use the First Mean Value Theorem for Integrals to prove the following version of the Mean Value Theorem for Derivatives. If ∈ C1[a, b], then there is an x0 ∈ [a, b] such that
f(b) - f(a) = (b - a)f'(x0).

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An Introduction to Analysis

ISBN: 978-0132296380

4th edition

Authors: William R. Wade

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Question Posted: Mar 29, 2016 04:03 AM

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Use the First Mean Value Theorem for Integrals to prove the following version of the Mean Value

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By the Fundamental Theorem of ...View the full answer

An Introduction to Analysis

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