Solve the IVP. Do not use Laplace transformation. (ddot{y}-y=t^{2}-cos t, quad y(0)=frac{1}{2}, dot{y}(0)=0)

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Solve the IVP. Do not use Laplace transformation.

\(\ddot{y}-y=t^{2}-\cos t, \quad y(0)=\frac{1}{2}, \dot{y}(0)=0\)

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