Solve the IVP. Do not use Laplace transformation. (dot{y}=(1-y) sin t, yleft(frac{1}{2} pi ight)=2)

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Solve the IVP. Do not use Laplace transformation.

\(\dot{y}=(1-y) \sin t, y\left(\frac{1}{2} \pi\right)=2\)


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