Given P$($A$1)=0\mathrm{.}40,$ P$($B$1|$A$1)=0\mathrm{.}60,$ and

P$($B$1|$A$2)=0\mathrm{.}70,$ what is the probability of P$($A$1|$B$1)?$

Answer rating: 100% (QA)

To find the probability PA1B1 we can use Bayes theorem which states PA1B1 PB1A1PA1PB1 ... View the full answer