A British firm will receive $1 million from a U.S. customer in three months. The firm is considering two strategies to eliminate its foreign exchange exposure. The first strategy is to pledge the $1 million as collateral for a three-month loan from a U.S. bank at 4 percent interest. The U.K. firm will then convert the proceeds of the loan to pounds at the spot rate. When the loan is due, the firm will pay the $1 million balance due by handing its U.S. receivable over to the bank. This strategy allows the U.K. firm to “monetize” its receivable immediately. The spot exchange rate is 0.6550 pounds per dollar.
The second strategy is to enter a forward contract at an exchange rate of 0.6450 pounds per dollar. This ensures that the U.K. firm will receive £645,000 in three months. If the firm wanted to monetize this payment immediately, it could take out a three-month loan from a U.K. bank at 8 percent, pledging the proceeds of the forward contract as collateral.
Which of these strategies should the firm follow?