An experiment involving subjects with schizophrenia compared "personal therapy" to "family therapy." Only 2 out of 23 subjects assigned to the personal therapy group suffered psychotic relapses in the first year of the study, compared to 8 of the 24 subjects assigned to the family therapy group. Is this sufficient evidence to conclude, at the 0.05 level of significance, that the two types of therapies are not equally effective? Conduct Fisher's exact test using a non directional alternative.