Question: Brescoll and Uhlmann (2008), in the study described in Exercise 14.18, found the reverse effect for females. They thought that perhaps this latter result was
(a) Is this difference significant?
(b) What is the effect size?
(c) The corresponding means and standard deviations (in parentheses) for males were 5.42
(1.63) in the no-attribution condition and 4.14 (2.46) in the external attribution condition. Do we have evidence of a double standard for males and females?
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