For n = 1, 2,..., let Xn and X be (real-valued) r.v.s and let g : (

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For n = 1, 2,..., let Xn and X be (real-valued) r.v.s and let g : ( †’ ( be continuous. Then show that implies g(Xn) g(X) (so the continuity preserves convergence in probability).

n→00
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