Question: How much does the value of IWPI-Spain, viewed as a stand-alone firm, change if the royalty fee is increased by 1% and the overhead allocation

How much does the value of IWPI-Spain, viewed as a stand-alone firm, change if the royalty fee is increased by 1% and the overhead allocation fee is reduced by 1%? What is the change in value to IWPI-U.S.? What is the source of this change in value?


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