If f1(x) and f2(x) are functions from the set of positive integers to the set of positive

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If f1(x) and f2(x) are functions from the set of positive integers to the set of positive real numbers and f1(x) and f2 (x) are both (g(x)), is (f1 ˆ’ f2)(x) also (g(x))? Either prove that it is or give a counterexample.

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Discrete Mathematics and Its Applications

ISBN: 978-0073383095

7th edition

Authors: Kenneth H. Rosen

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Question Posted: May 02, 2016 12:20 PM

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If f1(x) and f2(x) are functions from the set of positive integers to the set of positive

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Discrete Mathematics and Its Applications

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