Question: Let E R and suppose that f, fk: R R are bounded functions. Prove that if k=0 fk(x) converges to f(x) uniformly on
Let E Š‚ R and suppose that f, fk: R †’ R are bounded functions. Prove that if ˆ‘ˆžk=0 fk(x) converges to f(x) uniformly on E, then
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converges to f(x) uniformly on E as N †’ ˆž.
fR(a) 0
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