Question: In Exercises explain why Rolle's Theorem does not apply to the function even though there exist a and b such that (a) = (b). f(x)

In Exercises explain why Rolle's Theorem does not apply to the function even though there exist a and b such that ƒ(a) = ƒ(b).

f(x) = (2-x/), [1,1]

f(x) = (2-x/), [1,1]

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