Question: The function is differentiable on (0, 1) and satisfies (0) = (1). However, its derivative is never zero on (0, 1). Does this contradict Rolle's

The function f(x) -1-x fo, 1 - x, = x = 0 0 < is differentiable on (0, 1) and satisfies ƒ(0) = ƒ(1).
However, its derivative is never zero on (0, 1). Does this
contradict Rolle's Theorem? Explain.

f(x) -1-x fo, 1 - x, = x = 0 0 < x 1

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