Let b n = n n!. (a) Show that In bn = n k=1 k In -.
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Let bn = n√n!.
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(a) Show that In bn = n k=1 k In -. n ·S' (b) Show that In bn converges to bn → e-¹. In xdx, and conclude that
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a Let b n n Inb In nn Inn In n Inn n 1 Thus Then n and In 1 2 3 b By par...View the full answer
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