Question: Suppose f(x) and g(x) are continuous functions with f'(c) = 0. If both f and g have an inflection point at x = c, does
Suppose f(x) and g(x) are continuous functions with f'(c) = 0. If both f and g have an inflection point at x = c, does P(x) = f(x)g(x) have an inflection point at x = c? Either explain why this must always be true or find functions f(x) and g(x) for which it is false.
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