Explain why a risk-neutral investor would be indifferent between a one-year US dollar investment in a risk-free security at \(3 \%\) and a one-year British pound investment at \(5 \%\) if the investor expected the \(\$ / £\) spot exchange rate one year later to equal the forward rate as determined by the IRPT. In your explanation, assume the current spot exchange rate is \(\$ 1.50 / B P\).