A cogent example in which per capita magnitudes may be misleading if we do not have a

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A cogent example in which per capita magnitudes may be misleading if we do not have a good idea of distribution comes from the study of modern famine. Why do famines simply not make sense if we look at them from the viewpoint of worldwide per capita availability of food grain? Do they make better sense if we look at just food-grain availability per capita in that country? After mulling this over for a while, read the insightful book by Sen [1981].

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