Question: If two random variables are statistically independent, the coefficient of correlation between the two is zero. But the converse is not necessarily true; that is,

€œIf two random variables are statistically independent, the coefficient of correlation between the two is zero. But the converse is not necessarily true; that is, zero correlation does not imply statistical independence. However, if two variables are normally distributed, zero correlation necessarily implies statistical independence.€ Verify this statement for the following joint probability density function of two normally distributed variables Y1and Y2(this joint probability density function is known as the bivariate normal probability density function):

F(Y1, Y2) = exp Ξ 2(1 – p2) : ρ? 2πσισ2ν ( Υi- μι)(%- μ) - 2ρ- Υ- μ σισ σι

For a general discussion of the properties of the maximum likelihood estimators as well as for the distinction between asymptotic unbiasedness and consistency. Roughly speaking, in asymptotic unbiasedness we try to find out the lim E (σ̃n2 ) as n tends to infinity, where n is the sample size on which the estimator is based, whereas in consistency we try to find out how σ̃n2 behaves as n increases indefinitely. Notice that the unbiasedness property is a repeated sampling property of an estimator based on a sample of given size, whereas in consistency we are concerned with the behavior of an estimator as the sample size increases indefinitely.

where μ1 = mean of Y1

μ2 = mean of Y2

σ1 = standard deviation of Y1

σ2 = standard deviation of Y2

ρ = coefficient of correlation between Y1 and Y2

F(Y1, Y2) = exp 2(1 p2) : ? 22 ( i- )(%- ) - 2- -

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