Question: Using the normal equations (1.21) and (1.22), show that b1 is defined, but b2 is not, if X;= 0 for all i. Give an intuitive

Using the normal equations (1.21) and (1.22), show that b1 is defined, but b2 is not, if X;= 0 for all i. Give an intuitive explanation of this result.

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