Question: For a binomial GLM, explain why the Pearson residual for observation i, ei = (yi ????i) ????i(1 ????i)ni, does not have an

For a binomial GLM, explain why the Pearson residual for observation i, ei = (yi − ̂????i)∕

√ ̂????i(1 − ̂????i)∕ni, does not have an approximate standard normal distribution, even for a large ni.

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