Question: Let (x, y) = (x 2 - y 2 ) > (x 2 + y 2 ) for (x, y) (0, 0). Is it

Let ƒ(x, y) = (x2 - y2) > (x2 + y2) for (x, y) ≠ (0, 0). Is it possible to define ƒ(0, 0) in a way that makes ƒ continuous at the origin? Why?

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