Suppose that functions g(t) and h(t) are defined for all values of t and g(0) = h(0)

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Suppose that functions g(t) and h(t) are defined for all values of t and g(0) = h(0) = 0. Can lim_t→0 (g(t))/(h(t)) exist? If it does exist, must it equal zero? Give reasons for your answers.

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Thomas Calculus Early Transcendentals

ISBN: 9780321884077

13th Edition

Authors: Joel R Hass, Christopher E Heil, Maurice D Weir

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Question Posted: Apr 16, 2023 12:41 AM

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Suppose that functions g(t) and h(t) are defined for all values of t and g(0) = h(0)

Question:

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If we have no further information about the functions gt and ht then we cannot say for certain wheth...View the full answer

Thomas Calculus Early Transcendentals

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