$16\mathrm{.}3-1$

Suppose you have a potential function $$ such that $(D_i)(D_0)$ for all

$i,$ but $(D_0)0.$ Show that there exists a potential function ${}^{\text{'}}$ such that

${}^{\text{'}}(D_0)=0,{}^{\text{'}}(D_i)0$ for all $i1,$ and the amortized costs using ${}^{\text{'}}$ are

the same as the amortized costs using $.$