$1$a$)$ show that $(($p $$ q$)$p$)->$q is a tautology using true table

$1$b$)$ Let P$($x$,$ y$)$ be a propositional statement. Suppose that x is from the finite universe of discourse consisting of $\{$ x$1,$ x$2,...,$ xn $\}$ and that y is from the finite universe of discourse consisting of $\{$ y$1,$ y$2,...,$ym $\},$ then $$x $$y P$($x $,$ y$)$ is true when there exists an xi E$\{$ x$1,$ x$2,...,$ xn $\}$ such that P$($xi $,$ y$1)$ P$($xi $,$y$2)...$ P$($xi $,$ ym $)$ is true. Using a similar notation, when would $$y $$x P$($ x$,$ y$)$be true?