1. A work package is to be found at the summary level of the WBS. a. true b. false Q2. In resource planning, one of the issues that needs to be considered is: a. Staff empowerment b. Technical requirements of the project c. Theory X management principles d. Theory Y management principles Q3. Structured Walk-Through is a methodology used in: a. PERT b. GERT c. VERT d. Project Evaluation Q4. Needs recognition is the first stage of the needs-requirement life cycle. a. true b. false Q5. Which of the following is an example of a project? a. Maintaining e-mail addresses b. Capacity planning c. Submitting travel and expense reports d. Sending monthly reports to top management Q6. When crashing a project, we typically choose critical path tasks whose costs of crashing are highest. a. true b. false Q7. An objective of prototyping is to minimize life-cycle cost. 1 a. true b. false Q8. Configuration management is a: a. Methodology for working closely with customers by developing and updating requirements for faster response to changing customer needs b. Methodology for ensuring that requirements evolve with evolving customer requirements c. Methodology for specifying requirements at the outset and for controlling very tightly any changes to them d. Methodology for specifying requirements at the outset and for facilitating any changes to them with minimum customer input Q9. Confidence in the accuracy of a cost estimate increases when top-down and bottom-up estimates converge. a. true b. false Q10. Bottom-up estimates: a. Are based on historical trends b. Can be derived from the WBS c. Must employ Monte Carlo simulation d. a and c Q11. There is a definite link between the level of risk an enterprise encounters and project time frame. a. true b. false Q12. Scope creep means: a. Needs emergence and identification b. Uncontrolled changes to a project's requirements during project execution c. Migration of project needs to requirements d. Imprecise scope statement 2 Q13. Internal Rate of Return (IRR) is the discount rate that sets the present value of cash outflow equal to the present value of cash inflow. a. true b. false Q14. Which of the following methods involves performing tasks in parallel? a. Crashing b. Fast tracking c. Leveling d. Hammocking Q15. The critical path: a. Provides the duration of a project b. Has the shortest duration on a project c. Is the most expensive path to implement d. Contains the project's most significant tasks Q16. The type of management whose focus is on activities whose variances lie outside the acceptable range is: a. Management by Objectives b. Management by Exception c. Management by Walking Around d. Management by Control Limits Q17. A key weakness of the Benefit-Cost ratio project selection mechanism is that: a. It only focuses on things that can be measured b. It takes time frame into consideration c. It is too much based on subjective judgment d. It does not entail prioritizing Q18. A key objective of change control in configuration management is to keep track of actions taken in response to change requests. 3 a. true b. false Q19. Which of the following shows resource allocation over time? a. Resource Gantt chart b. Resource matrix c. S-Curve d. Resource leveling Q20. Milestones, like tasks, consume resources. a. true b. false Q21. Good functional requirements a. Describe how the deliverable should be developed b. Provide detailed technical insights into what the deliverable will do c. Describe what the deliverable looks like and what it should do d. Are created after development of the technical specifications Q22. Definitive estimates are generally derived from: a. Bottom-up estimates b. Top-down estimates c. Expert judgment cost estimates d. Order of magnitude estimates Q23. A modern view in Human Resource Management is that positive motivation results from an opportunity to achieve and experience self-actualization. a. true b. false Q24. A four step risk assessment process reflecting standard risk management good practice consists of: 4 a. Risk identification, Risk deflection, Risk impact analysis, Risk monitoring and control b. b. Risk acceptance, Risk impact analysis, Risk response planning, Risk monitoring and control c. Risk deflection, Contingency planning, Risk impact analysis, Risk monitoring and control d. Risk identification, Risk impact analysis, Risk response planning, Risk monitoring and control Q25. A major strength of task Gantt charts is that they can: a. Offer a sophisticated model of a project b. Show how many resources will be used on the project c. Show the interdependencies of tasks d. Show actual versus planned schedule status Q26. If EV = $300, AC = $400, and the project budget is $1,000, what is the estimated final cost of the project (this is known as EAC, estimate at complete)? a. $750 b. $1,000 c. $1,250 d. $1,333 Q27. A tool that graphically shows cost variance is: a. A chart of accounts b. A code of accounts c. A histogram (also called a resource loading chart) d. A cumulative cost curve (also called S-curve) Q28. If review of a project's status indicates that EV = $400, AC = $400, and PV = $500, the project is: a. On budget, behind schedule b. On budget, ahead of schedule c. Over budget, behind schedule d. Over budget, ahead of schedule 5 Q29. Functional requirements provide us with detailed technical specifications. a. true b. false Q30. Which of the following is a characteristic of an effective reporting system? a. SMART b. KISS c. MBO d. LOWBALLING Q31. A key characteristic of an effective project team is that: a. Members have graduate degrees in project management b. Members come from the same professional background c. Members see themselves as stakeholders in the project d. Members adhere to a prescribed pecking order Q32. The purpose of mid-project evaluation is: a. Continual monitoring of budget and estimates b. To focus on achievement of individual element of the project plan c. To determine whether the original objectives are still relevant d. To re-baseline the project budget Q33. The poor man's hierarchy is a method for: a. Project estimation b. Project scheduling c. WBS construction d. Project selection Q34. Rapid prototyping is a methodology for: a. Specifying requirements at the outset and for controlling very tightly any changes to them b. Specifying requirements at the outset and for facilitating later changes to them with 6 minimum customer in put c. Triggering early warning of unauthorized changes to the original prototype to enable project management to take remedial actions d. Working closely with customers by creating and updating prototypes that respond to customer input Q35. Under what conditions may a project manager accept a change request? a. If the request has no effect on project objectives, deadlines, or resources b. If the request has no effect on project objectives, although it has effects on deadlines and resources c. If the request is coming from a valued customer d. If the request is from the Chief Executive Officer Q36. A challenge of the matrix project organization is that: a. Team members are full of ego b. Team members are selected from the same functional area c. Team members have divided loyalties d. It enables functional managers to provide career guidance to their workers Q37. In project management, the level of uncertainty plays a major role in determining the adequacy of a project plan. a. true b. false Q38. Under rapid prototyping (also called application prototyping), the customer actually sees and works with the deliverable as it evolves. a. true b. false Q39. If the latest time you can start a task is five hours into the project, and the earliest time is three and a half hours into the project, how much slack (also called float) does the task have? a. 0.5 hours b. 1.5 hours c. 2.5 hours 7 d. 8.5 hours Q40. Which of the following is an elapsed time task? a. Paint is drying b. A painter paints the wall c. Software is being written d. A sandwich is being made 8