Question: 13.4 Explain why Rez (0:1) (= 1) dz ~(0;1) ( ) cannot be evaluated by applying Cauchy's integral formula with f(z) = Rez. Prove

13.4 Explain why Rez (0:1) (= 1) dz ~(0;1) ( ) cannot

13.4 Explain why Rez (0:1) (= 1) dz ~(0;1) ( ) cannot be evaluated by applying Cauchy's integral formula with f(z) = Rez. Prove that Rez coincides with (z+z)/2 when || = 1. Hence evaluate the given integral.

Step by Step Solution

There are 3 Steps involved in it

1 Expert Approved Answer
Step: 1 Unlock blur-text-image
Question Has Been Solved by an Expert!

Get step-by-step solutions from verified subject matter experts

Step: 2 Unlock
Step: 3 Unlock

Students Have Also Explored These Related Mathematics Questions!