16. The external model yields some advantages such as ______________

a.	use of the database subsets to make application program development much simpler.
b.	use of the database subsets to make application program development much harder.
c.	use of the database subsets to make application program development impossible to create.
d.	use of the database subsets to make application program development much cumbersome.

17. The conceptual model

a.	can handle M:N relationships.
b.	can handle multivalued attributes.
c.	should not be implemented in the relational DBMS.
d.	all of the above
e.	none of the above

18. A derived attribute

a.	must be stored physically within the database.
b.	need not be physically stored within the database.
c.	is derived by using an algorithm.
d.	a and c
e.	b and c

19. A relationship is an association between

a.	objects.
b.	entities.
c.	databases.
d.	fields.

20. Cardinality expresses __________ number of entity occurrences associated with one occurrences of the related entity.

a.	an undetermined
b.	the specific
c.	a pre-determined
d.	a programmed

21. A table that displays data redundancies yields the following anomalies:

a.	update anomalies
b.	insertion anomalies
c.	deletion anomalies
d.	all of the above
e.	none of the above

22. The term first normal form (1NF) describes the tabular format in which:

a.	all the key attributes are defined.
b.	there are no repeating groups in the table. Row/column intersection can contain one and only one value, not a set of values.
c.	all attributes are dependent on the primary key.
d.	all of the above
e.	none of the above

23. A table that has all key attributes defined, has no repeating groups, and all its attributes are dependent on the primary key, is said to be in

a.	1NF.
b.	2NF.
c.	3NF.
d.	4NF.

24. A table that is in 2NF and contains no transitive dependencies is said to be in

a.	1NF.
b.	2NF.
c.	3NF.
d.	4NF.
e.	BCNF.

25. The SQL command that lets you save your work to disk, is

a.	insert.
b.	select.
c.	commit.
d.	update.
e.	rollback.

26. The SQL command that lets you list the table contents is

a.	insert.
b.	select.
c.	commit.
d.	update.
e.	rollback.

27. When making corrections you would use the following command

a.	CHANGE PRODUCT SET P_INDATE = '01/18/2002' WHERE P_CODE = '13-Q2/P2';
b.	ROLLBACK PRODUCT SET P_INDATE = '01/18/2002' WHERE P_CODE = '13-Q2/P2';
c.	EDIT PRODUCT SET P_INDATE = '01/18/2002' WHERE P_CODE = '13-Q2/P2';
d.	UPDATE PRODUCT SET P_INDATE = '01/18/2002' WHERE P_CODE = '13-Q2/P2';

28. To remove the value 2238/QPD from the product table you must use the following command

a.	DELETE FROM PRODUCT WHERE P_CODE = '2238/QPD';
b.	REMOVE FROM PRODUCT WHERE P_CODE = '2238/QPD';
c.	ERASE FROM PRODUCT WHERE P_CODE = '2238/QPD';
d.	ROLLBACK FROM PRODUCT WHERE P_CODE = '2238/QPD';

Which query command to list all the rows in which the inventory stock dates occur on or after January:

a.	SELECT P_DESCRIP, P_HAND, P_MIN, P_PRICE, P_INDATE FROM PRODUCT WHERE P_INDICATE >= '01/20/2002'
b.	SELECT P_DESCRIP, P_HAND, P_MIN, P_PRICE, P_INDATE FROM PRODUCT WHERE P_INDICATE > '01/20/2002'
c.	SELECT P_DESCRIP, P_HAND, P_MIN, P_PRICE, P_INDATE FROM PRODUCT WHERE P_INDICATE <= '01/20/2002'
d.	SELECT P_DESCRIP, P_HAND, P_MIN, P_PRICE, P_INDATE FROM PRODUCT WHERE P_INDICATE = '01/20/2002'

30. ANSI-standard SQL allows the use of special operator in conjunction with WHERE clause. Such special operator used to check whether an attribute value is null is

a.	between.
b.	null.
c.	like.
d.	in.
e.	exists.

31. You want the contents of the PRODUCT table listed by P_Price in ascending order listing P_CODE, P_DESCRIPT, P_INDATE, and P_PRICE.

The command will be

a.	SELECT P_CODE, P_DESCRIPT, P_INDATE, P_PRICE FROM PRODUCT SEQUENCE BY P_PRICE;
b.	SELECT P_CODE, P_DESCRIPT, P_INDATE, P_PRICE FROM PRODUCT LIST BY P_PRICE;
c.	SELECT P_CODE, P_DESCRIPT, P_INDATE, P_PRICE FROM PRODUCT ORDER BY P_PRICE;
d.	SELECT P_CODE, P_DESCRIPT, P_INDATE, P_PRICE FROM PRODUCT ASCENDING BY P_PRICE;

32. The command to join the PRODUCT (P_DESCRIPT, P_PRICE, V_CODE) and VENDOR (V_CODE, V_NAME, V_CONTACT, V_AREACODE, V_PHONE) tables would be:

a.	SELECT P_DESCRIPT, P_PRICE, V_NAME, V_CONTACT, V_AREACODE, V_PHONE FROM PRODUCT, VENDOR WHERE PRODUCT.V_CODE <> VENDOR.V_CODE; ORDER BY P_PRICE;
b.	SELECT P_DESCRIPT, P_PRICE, V_NAME, V_CONTACT, V_AREACODE, V_PHONE FROM PRODUCT, VENDOR WHERE PRODUCT.V_CODE = VENDOR.V_CODE; ORDER BY P_PRICE;
c.	SELECT P_DESCRIPT, P_PRICE, V_NAME, V_CONTACT, V_AREACODE, V_PHONE FROM PRODUCT, VENDOR WHERE PRODUCT.V_CODE <= VENDOR.V_CODE; ORDER BY P_PRICE;
d.	SELECT P_DESCRIPT, P_PRICE, V_NAME, V_CONTACT, V_AREACODE, V_PHONE FROM PRODUCT, VENDOR WHERE PRODUCT.V_CODE => VENDOR.V_CODE; ORDER BY P_PRICE;

33. The commands which are used to create new database objects and modify or delete existing objects are called

a.	data definition language (DDL) commands.
b.	data manupolation language (DML) commands.
c.	structured query language (SQL) commands.
d.	none of these answers is correct.

34. Commands which are used to insert, update, and view database data are

a.	data definition language (DDL) commands.
b.	data manupolation language (DML) commands.
c.	structured query language (SQL) commands.
d.	3rd generation language commands.

35. The following commands immediately change the database objects, so they do NOT need to be explicitly saved:

a.	all DDL commands.
b.	all DML commands
c.	all DDL and DML commands.
d.	all SQL commands.

36. The techniques to control deadlocks are

a.	deadlock prevention.
b.	deadlock detection.
c.	deadlock avoidance.
d.	all of the above.
e.	none of the above.

37. Which of the following are DDL commands?

a.	CREATE, UPDATE, DELETE
b.	CREATE, DROP, ALTER
c.	GRANT, CREATE, DELETE
d.	GRANT, REVOKE, UPDATE

38. Integrity constraints

a.	define specific data values or ranges.
b.	define whether values must be unique and not NULL.
c.	are used to define primary and foreign keys.
d.	are used to limit the values that can be placed in a specific column.

39. A foreign key

a.	at any time in the process of defining the database structure.
b.	must be defined before the primary key is defined in the referenced table.
c.	can include multiple table references.
d.	can only be defined if the table in which the field is a primary key already exists and the field has been defined as a primary key.

40. A composite primary key constraint

a.	is defined by listing all of the fields that comprise the composite primary key, with each field name separated by a semicolon.
b.	is defined by listing all of the fields that comprise the composite primary key, with each field name separated by a comma.
c.	is defined by listing all of the fields that comprise the composite primary key, with each field name separated by a forward slash.
d.	can be defined prior to defining the columns that comprise the composite key.

41. Which of the following is an unrestricted table action?

a.	Dropping a table from a user schema.
b.	Increasing column widths.
c.	Adding a UNIQUE constraint to a column.
d.	Changing a column's default value.

42. The CASCADE CONSTRAINT option

a.	prevents tables with foreign keys from being deleted.
b.	drops tables in proper order so foreign key constraints are maintained.
c.	the system first drops all of the constraints associated with the table, and then drops the table.
d.	is not valid in Oracle 8i.

43. The basic SQL command to modify an existing table structure is

a.	ALTER TABLE
b.	MODIFY TABLE
c.	ALTER ADD
d.	CHANGE TABLE

44. When you use the AND operator

a.	either condition must be true for a row to satisfy the search condition.
b.	both conditions must be true for the row to satisfy the search condition.
c.	the WHERE statement must be referencing values in the same field.
d.	both conditions must be false for the row to satisfy the search condition.

45. When issuing a DELETE command, if the WHERE clause is omitted

a.	none of the records will be deleted.
b.	the user will be prompted to select the records to delete.
c.	all table records are deleted.
d.	it is not possible to commit the command.

46. All of the following statements about the TRUNCATE command are true EXCEPT:

a.	TRUNCATE is implicitly committed as soon as it executes.
b.	TRUNCATE creates a copy of the table before deleting it from memory, but it removes the table and all references to it from the user schema.
c.	TRUNCATE removes all of the table data without saving any rollback information.
d.	When you truncate a table, the table structure and constraints remain intact.

47. If you do not want to see duplicate column values in query output,

a.	use the UNIQUE qualifier in the SELECT command.
b.	the column must have a UNIQUE constraint.
c.	use the DISTINCT qualifier in the SELECT command.
d.	use the WHERE clause so that only one record is displayed for each value.

48. An equijoin is also referred to as

a.	an outer join.
b.	a self join.
c.	an inner join.
d.	an equation join.

49. If you want to ensure that all the records in one table appear, along with the matching rows from a second table, you would use a(n)

a.	inner join.
b.	equijoin.
c.	outer join.
d.	self join.

50. The SELECT FOR UPDATE command

a.	places a total lock on the record, so no other users can access it.
b.	places a shared lock on the record, which allows other users to view but not modify the data.
c.	will take control of a record, even if another user is currently using it.
d.	commits on input, it cannot be rolled back.