Question: 2. From a jus ad bellum perspective, does the right of self-defence ever allow a state to lawfully use force against a non-state actor located

2. From a jus ad bellum perspective, does the right of self-defence ever allow a state to lawfully use force against a non-state actor located in another state without that other state's consent? Do you agree with the 'unwilling or unable' doctrine? What are its implications

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