Question: 2: Let f:{0,1}^n->{0,1}^m be a one-way function and g:{0,1}^m->{0,1}^n be also a one-way function. Would F=gf: {0,1}^n->{0,1}^n be a one-way function? Here Fx=g(f(x)). Also, if

2: Let f:{0,1}^n->{0,1}^m be a one-way function and g:{0,1}^m->{0,1}^n be also a one-way function. Would F=gf: {0,1}^n->{0,1}^n be a one-way function? Here Fx=g(f(x)). Also, if g or f is not one-way, would F still be one-way? Please briefly explain your answer. (5 points each)

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